IAS Exam Papers-Prelim - General Studies 2010

Genral-Studies-2010-Prelims

1. For the Karachi session of Indian National Congress in 1931, presidedover by Sardar Patel, who drafted the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Ans: (b)

2. Who among the following were official Congress negotiators with Cripps Mission?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel

(b) Acharya J. B. Kripalani and C. Rajagopalachari

(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai

Ans: (c)

3. Which one of the following processes in the bodies of living organisms

is a digestive process?

(a) Breakdown of proteins into amino acids

(b) Breakdown of glucose into CO2 and H2O.

(d) Conversion of amino acids into proteins.

Ans: (a)

4. From the point of view of evolution of living organisms, which one of the

following is the correct sequence of evolution?

(a) Otter - Tortoise - Shark

(b) Shark - Tortoise - Otter

(d) Shark - Otter – Tortoise

Ans: (b)

5. Consider the following statements:

1. Hepatitis B is several times more infectious than HIV / AIDS.

2. Hepatitis B can cause liver cancer.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (c)

6. Excessive release of the pollutant carbon monoxide (CO), into the air

may produce a condition in which oxygen supply in the human body

decreases. What causes this condition?

(a) When inhaled into the human body, CO is converted into CO2.

(b) The inhaled CO has much higher affinity for haemoglobin as compared to

oxygen.

(d) The inhaled CO adversely affects the respiratory centre in the brain.

Ans: (b)

7. Consider the following statements:

1. Every individual in the population is equally susceptible host for Swine Flu.

2. Antibiotics have no role in the primary treatment of Swine Flu.

3. To prevent the future spread of Swine Flu in the epidemic area, the swine

(pigs) must all be

culled.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (a)

8. With regard to the transmission of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus,

which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The chances of transmission from female to male are twice as likely as from

male to female.

(b) The chances of transmission are more if a person suffers from other sexually

transmitted infections.

feeding.

(d) The risk of contracting infection from transfusion of infected blood is much

higher than an exposure to contaminated needle.

Ans: (a)

9. What are the possible limitations of India in mitigating the global

warming at present and in the immediate future?

1. Appropriate alternate technologies are not sufficiently available.

2. India can not invest huge funds in research and development.

3. Many developed countries have already set up their polluting industries in

India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

10. Consider the following statements:

1. The Commonwealth has no charter, treaty or constitution.

2. All the territories / countries once under the British empire (jurisdiction / rule /

mandate) automatically joined the commonwealth as its members.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (d)

11. Examine the following statements:

1. All colours are pleasant.

2. Some colours are pleasant.

3. No colour is pleasant.

4. Some colours are not pleasant.

Given that the statement 4 is true, what can be definitely concluded?

(a) 1 and 2 are true (b) 1 is false

Ans: (b)

12. In the context of bilateral trade negotiations between India and

European Union, what is the difference between European Commission

and European Council?

1. European Commission represents the EU in trade negotiations whereas

European Council participates in the legislation of matters pertaining to economic

policies of the European Union.

2. European Commission comprises the Heads of State or government of

member countries whereas the European Council comprises of the persons

nominated by European Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (a)

13. The approximate representations of land use classification in India is

(a) Net area sown 25%; forests 33%; other areas 42%.

(b) Net area sown 58%; forests 17%; other areas 25%.

(d) Net area sown 47%; forests 23%; other areas 30%.

Ans: (d)

14. With reference to the National Investment Fund to which the

disinvestment proceeds are routed, consider the following statements:

1. The assets in the National Investment Fund are managed by the Union

Ministry of Finance.

2. The National Investment Fund is to be maintained within the Consolidated

Fund of India.

3. Certain Asset Management Companies are appointed as the fund managers.

4. A certain proportion of annual income is used for financing select social

sectors.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only

Ans: (c)

15. In India, which of the following is regulated by the Forward Markets

Commission?

(a) Currency Futures Trading

(b) Commodities Futures Trading.

(d) Both Commodities Futures and Financial Futures Trading.

Ans: (b)

16. Which one of the following is not a feature of Limited Liability

Partnership firm?

(a) Partners should be less than 20.

(b) Partnership and management need not be separate.

(d) It is corporate body with perpetual succession.

Ans: (a)

17. With reference to the institution of Banking Ombudsman in India, which

one of the statements is not correct?

(a) The Banking Ombudsman is appointed by the Reserve Bank of India.

(b) The Banking Ombudsman can consider complaints from Non – Resident

Indians having accounts in India.

parties concerned.

(d) The service provided by the Banking Ombudsman is free of any fee.

Ans: (c)

18. With reference to the India, consider the following:

1. Nationalization of Banks.

2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks.

3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches.

Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to achieve the “financial

inclusion” in India?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans: (d)

19. What was the immediate reason for Ahmad Shah Abdali to invade India

and fight the Third Battle of Panipat?

(a) He wanted to avenge the expulsion by Marathas of his victory Timur Shah

from Lahore.

(b) The frustrated governor of Jullundhar Adina Beg Khan invited him to invade

Punjab.

revenues of the Chahar Mahal (Gujarat, Aurangabad, Sialkot and Pasrur).

(d) He wanted to annex all the fertile plains of Punjab up to the borders of Delhi

to his kingdom.

Ans: (a)

20. With reference to the Pondicherry (now Puducherry), consider the

following statements:

1. The first European power to occupy Pondicherry were the Portuguese.

2. The second European power to occupy Pondicherry were the French.

3. The English never occupied Pondicherry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans: (a)

21. Why did Buddhism start declining in India in the early medieval times?

1. Buddha was by that time considered as one of the incarnations of Vishnu and

thus became

a part of Vaishnavism.

2. The invading tribes from Central Asia till the time of last Gupta king adopted

Hinduism and

persecuted Buddhists.

3. The Kings of Gupta dynasty were strongly opposed to Buddhism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only

Ans: (a)

22. Consider the following statements:

The functions of commercial banks in India include

1. Purchase and sale of shares and securities on behalf of customers.

2. Acting as executors and trustees of wills.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (c)

23. In India, the tax proceeds of which one of the following as a percentage

of gross tax revenue has significantly declined in the last five years?

(a) Service tax (b) Personal income tax

Ans: (c)

24. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendations to the

Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and

duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular

State?

(a) District Planning Committees. (b) State Finance Commission.

Ans: (b)

25. Consider the following statements:

In India, taxes on transactions in Stock Exchanges and Futures Markets are

1. levied by the Union.

2. collected by the States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (a)

26. In India, during the last decade the total cultivated land for which one of

the following crops has remained more or less stagnant?

(a) Rice (b) Oil Seeds

Ans: (c)

27. Consider the following statements:

1. The Union Government fixes the Statutory Minimum Price of sugarcane for

each sugar

season.

2. Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under the Essential

Commodities Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (c)

28. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following

statements:

1. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has increased by four times in the last 10

years.

2. The percentage share of Public Sector in GDP has declined in the last 10

years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (b)

29. Consider the following which can be found in the ambient atmosphere:

1. Soot

2. Sulphur hexafluoride

3. Water vapour

Which of the above contribute to the warming up of the atmosphere?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

Ans: (d)

30. The International Development Association, a lending agency, is

administered by the

(a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development.

(b) International Fund for Agricultural Development.

(d) United Nations Industrialized Development Organization.

Ans: (a)

31. When you travel in certain parts of India, you will notice red soil. What

is the main reason for this colour?

(a) Abundance of magnesium (b) Accumulated humus

Ans: (c)

32. Which one of the following is the appropriate reason for considering the

Gondwana rocks as most important of rock systems of India?

(a) More than 90% of limestone reserves of India are found in them.

(b) More than 90% of India’s coal reserves are found in them.

(d) None of the reasons given above is appropriate in this context.

Ans: (b)

33. Which one of the following can one come across if one travels through

the Strait of Malacca:

(a) Bali (b) Brunei

Ans: (d)

34. With reference to the river Luni, which one of the following statements

is correct?

(a) It flows into Gulf of Khambhat.

(b) It flows into Gulf of Kuchchh.

(d) It is lost in the marshy land of the Rann of Kuchchh.

Ans : (d)

35. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Dam / Lake River

(a) Govind Sagar - Satluj

(b) Kolleru Lake - Krishna

(d) Wular Lake – Jhelum

Ans: (b)

36. A geographic region has the following distinct characteristics:

1. Warm and dry climate.

2. Mild and wet winter.

3. Evergreen oak trees.

The above features are the distinct characteristics of which one of the following

regions?

(a) Mediterranean (b) Eastern China

Ans: (a)

37. With reference to the National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy,

2007, consider the following statements:

1. This policy is applicable only to the persons affected by the acquisition of land

for projects

and not to the involuntary displacement due to any other reason.

2. This policy has been formulated by the Ministry of Social Justice and

Empowerment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans : (a)

38. In the context of India’s Five Year Plan, a shift in the pattern of

industrialization, with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on

infrastructure begins in

(a) Fourth Plan (b) Sixth Plan

Ans: (c)

39. Two of the schemes launched by the Government of India for Women’s

development are Swadhar and Swayam Siddha. As regards the difference

between them, consider the following statements:

1. Swayam Siddha is meant for those in difficult circumstances such as women

survivors of natural disasters or terrorism, women prisoners released from jails,

mentally challenged women etc. whereas Swadhar is meant for holistic

empowerment of women through Self Help Groups.

2. Swayam Siddha is implemented through Local Self Government bodies or

reputed Voluntary Organizations whereas Swadhar is implemented through the

ICDS units set up in the states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (d)

40. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the

Child, consider the following:

1. The Right to Development.

2. The Right to Expression.

3. The Right to Recreation.

Which of the above is/are the Rights of the child?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only

Ans: (d)

41. Three men start together to travel the same way around a circular track

of 11 km. Their speeds are 4, 5.5 and 8 kmph respectively. When will they

meet at the starting point for the first time?

(a) After 11 hours (b) After 21 hours

Ans: (c)

42. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in

India, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if

it deems fit.

(b) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman.

services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs.

(d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be field

with a District Forum by the State Government as a representative of the

interests of the consumers in general.

Ans: ( c)

43. King Cobra is the only snake that makes its own nest. Why does it make

its nest?

(a) It is a snake – eater and the nest helps attract other snakes.

(b) It is a viviparous snake and needs a nest to give birth to its offspring.

they are

hatched.

(d) It is a large, cold blooded animal and needs a nest to hibernate in the cold

season.

Ans: (c)

44. As a result of their annual survey, the National Geographic Society and

an international

polling firm Globe Scan gave India top rank in Greendex 2009 score. What

is this score?

(a) It is a measure of efforts made by different countries in adopting technologies

for reducing

carbon footprint?

(b) It is a measure of environmentally sustainable consumer behaviour in

different countries.

countries for

improving the conservation of natural resources.

(d) It is an index showing the volume of carbon credits sold by different countries.

Ans: (b)

45. Consider the following statements:

1. The Taxus tree naturally found in the Himalayas.

2. The Taxus tree is listed in the Red Data Book.

3. A drug called ‘taxol’ is obtained from Taxus tree is effective against

Parkinson’s disease.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans: ( b)

46. P, Q, R and S are four men. P is the oldest but not the poorest. R is the

richest but not the oldest. Q is older than S but not than P or R. P is richer

than Q but not than S. The four men can be ordered (descending) in

respect of age and richness, respectively, as:

(a) PQRS, RPSQ (b) PRQS, RSPQ

Ans: (b)

47. What causes wind to defect toward left in the Southern hemisphere?

(a) Temperature (b) Magnetic field

Ans: (c)

48. Indiscriminate disposal of used fluorescent electric lamps causes

mercury pollution in the environment. Why is mercury used in the

manufacture of these lamps?

(a) A mercury coating on the inside of the lamp makes the light bright white.

(b) When the lamp is switched on, the mercury in the lamp causes the emission

of ultra – violet

radiations.

violet energy into

visible light.

(d) None of the statement given above is correct about the use of mercury in the

manufacture

of fluorescent lamps.

Ans: ( b)

49. If there were no Himalayan ranges, what would have been the most

likely geographical impact on India?

1. Much of the country would experience the cold waves from Siberia.

2. Indo – gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvial soils.

3. The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only

Ans: ( d)

50. In the context of space technology, what is “Bhuvan”, recently in the

news?

(a) A mini satellite launched by ISRO for promoting the distance education in

India.

(b) The name given to the next moon Impact Probe, for Chandrayan – II.

(d) A space telescope developed by India.

Ans: (c)

51. The latitudes that pass through Sikkim also pass through

(a) Rajasthan (b) Punjab

Ans: (a)

52. A man fills a basket with eggs in such a way that the number of eggs

added on each successive day is the same as the number already present

in the basket. This way the basket gets completely filled in 24 days. After

how many days the basket was 1 / 4th full?

(a) 6 (b) 12

Ans: (d)

53. The diameters of two circular coins are in the ratio of 1 : 3. The smaller

coin is made to roll around the bigger coin till it returns to the position from

where the process of rolling started. How many times the smaller coin

rolled around the bigger coin?

(a) 9 (b) 6

Ans: (c)

54. The difference between the simple interest received from two banks on

Rs. 500 for two years is Rs. 2.50. What is the difference between their

rates?

(a) 0.25% (b) 0.5%

Ans: ( a)

55. When ten persons shake hands with one another, in how many ways is

it possible?

(a) 20 (b) 25

Ans: (d)

56. A candidate attempted 12 questions and secured full marks in all of

them. If he obtained 60% in the test and all questions carried equal marks,

then what is the number of questions in the test?

(a) 36 (b) 30

Ans: (d)

57. In how many ways can four children be made to stand in a line such

that two of them, A and B are always together?

(a) 6 (b) 12

Ans: (b)

58. In a meeting, the map of a village was placed in such a manner that

south – east becomes north, north – east becomes west and so on. What

will south become?

(a) North (b) North – east

Ans: ( b)

59. Consider the following statements:

1. The “Bombay Manifesto” signed in 1936 openly opposed the preaching of

socialist ideals.

2. It evoked support from a large section of business community from all across

India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: ( a)

60. Among the following, who was not a proponent of bhakti cult?

(a) Nagarjuna (b) Tukaram

Ans: (a)

61. Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some regions may be

contributing to global warming. To what possible reason / reasons is this

attributable?

1. The anaerobic conditions associated with rice cultivation cause the emission of

methane.

2. When nitrogen based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is emitted from the

cultivated soil.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (c)

62. Sustainable development is described as the development that meets

the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future

generations to meet their own needs. In this perspective, inherently the

concept of sustainable development is intertwined with which of the

following concepts?

(a) Social justice and empowerments (b) Inclusive Growth

Ans: (d)

63. Given below are the names of four energy crops. Which one of them

can be cultivated for ethanol?

(a) Jatropha (b) Maize

Ans: (b)

64. Consider the following pairs:

Protected Area Well Known for

1. Bhiterkanika, Orissa — Salt Water Crocodile

2. Desert National Park, Rajasthan — Great Indian Bustard

3. Eravikulam, Kerala — Hootak Gibbon

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans: ( b)

65. Some species of plants are insectivorous. Why?

(a) Their growth in shady and dark places does not allow them to undertake

sufficient

photosynthesis and thus they depend on insects for nutrition.

(b) They are adapted to grow in nitrogen deficient soils and thus depend on

insects for sufficient nitrogenous nutrition.

insects digested by them.

(d) They have remained in that particular stage of evolution as living fossils, a link

between autotrophs and heterotrophs.

Ans: (b)

66. A person traveled a distance of 50 km in 8 hours. He covered a part of

the distance on foot at the rate of 4 km per hour and a part on a bicycle at

the rate of 10 km per hour. How much distance did he travel on foot?

(a) 10 km (b) 20 km

Ans : (b)

67. In the context of governance, consider the following:

1. Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows.

2. Privatization of higher educational Institutions.

3. Down – sizing of bureaucracy.

4. Selling / offloading the shares of Public Sector Undertakings.

Which of the above can be used as measures to control the fiscal deficit in India?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (d)

68. As per the UN – Habitat’s Global Report on Human Settlement 2009,

which one among the

following regions has shown the fastest growth rate of urbanization in the

last three

decades?

(a) Asia (b) Europe

Ans: (a)

69. In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the largest

area?

(a) Montane Wet Temporate Forest (b) Sub – tropical Dry Evergreen Forest

Ans: (c)

70. Inclusive growth as enunciated in the Eleventh Five Year Plan does not

include one of the

following:

(a) Reduction of poverty (b) Extension of employment opportunities

Ans: (c)

71. How many numbers from 0 to 999 are not divisible by either 5 or 7?

(a) 313 (b) 341

Ans: (c)

72. Tamil Nadu is a leading producers of mill – made cotton yarn in the

country. What could

be be the reason?

1. Black cotton soil is the predominant type of soil in the State.

2. Rich pool of skilled labour is available.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (b)

73. Consider the following statements:

1. On the planet Earth, the fresh water available for use amounts to about less

than 1% of the

total water found.

2. Of the total fresh water found on the planet Earth 95% is bound up in polar ice

caps and

glaciers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (b)

74. Which one of following reflects back more sunlight as compared to

other three?

(a) Sand desert (b) Paddy crop land

Ans: (c)

75. Rivers that pass through Himachal Pradesh are :

(a) Beas and Chenab only (b) Beas and Ravi only

Ans: (c)

76. Who of the following shall cause every recommendations made by the

Finance

Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?

(a) The President of India (b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

Ans: (a)

77. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and

presentation of Union

Budget to the Parliament?

(a) Department of Revenue (b) Department of Economic Affairs

Ans: (b)

78. In a group of five persons A, B, C, D and E, there is a professor, a

doctor and layer. A and

D are unmarried ladies, and do not work. Of the married couple in the

Group, E is the

husband. B is the brother of A and is neither a doctor nor a lawyer. Who is

the professor?

(a) B

(b) C

(d) Cannot be determined with the available data

Ans: (a)

79. Consider the following actions by the Government:

1. Cutting the tax rates

2. Increasing the government spending

3. Abolishing the subsidies

In the context of economic recession, which of the above actions can be

considered a part of the

“fiscal stimulus” package?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (a)

80. Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One –

fifth of the villagers

cultivate paddy. One – third of the villagers are literate. Four – fifth of the

villagers are

below twenty five. Then, which one of the following is certainly true?

(a) All the villagers who have their own houses are literate.

(b) Some villagers under twenty five are literate.

(d) Half of the villagers who cultivate paddy are literate.

Ans: (b)

81. When the Reserve Bank of India announces an increase of the Cash

Reserve Ratio, what

does it mean?

(a) The commercial banks will have less money to lend.

(b) The Reserve Bank of India will have less money to lend.

(d) The commercial banks will have more money to lend.

Ans: (a)

82. Who among the following Governor General created the Covenanted

Civil Service of India

which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Service?

(a) Warren Hastings (b) Wellesley

Ans: (c)

83. What was the immediate cause for the launch of the Swadeshi

movement?

(a) The partition of Bengal done by Lord Curzon.

(b) A sentence of 18 months rigorous imprisonment imposed on Lokmanya Tilak.

the Punjab

Colonization Bill.

(d) Death sentence pronounced on the Chapekar brothers.

Ans: (a)

84. Consider the following statements:

1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come in Champaran to

investigate the

problem of peasants.

2. Acharya J. B. Kriplani was one of the Mahatma Gandhi’s colleagues in his

Champaran

investigation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (b)

85. By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was deprived of his

judicial powers and

made the collecting agent only. What was the reason for such regulation?

(a) Lord Cornwallis felt that the District Collector’s efficiency of revenue collection

would

enormously increase without the burden of other work.

(b) Lord Cornwallis felt that Judicial power should compulsorily be in the hands of

Europeans

while Indians can be given the job of revenue collection in the districts.

District Collector

and felt that such absolute power was undesirable in one person.

(d) The judicial work demanded a deep knowledge of India and a good training in

law and Lord

Cornwallis felt that District Collector should be only a revenue collector?

Ans: (c)

86. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis only.

2. As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI(IW)), the

WPI gives less

weight to food articles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: ( b)

87. Each person’s performance compared with all other persons is to be

done to rank them

subjectively. How many comparisons are needed to total, if there are 11

persons?

(a) 66 (b) 55

Ans: (b)

88. What is te principle by which a cooling system (Radiator) in a motor car

works?

(a) Conduction only (b) Convection

Ans: (b)

89. Which among the following do / does not belong / belongs to the GSM

family of wireless

technologies?

(a) EDGE (b) LTE

Ans: (c)

90. With reference to the treatment of cancerous tumors, a tool called cyber

knife has been

making the news. In this context, which one of the following statements is

not correct?

(a) It is a robotic image guided system.

(b) It delivers an extremely precise dose of radiation.

(d) It can map the spread of tumour in the body.

Ans: (d)

91. Six books, A, B, C, D, E and F are placed side by side. B, C and E have

blue cover and the

other books have red cover. Only D and F are new books and the rest are

old. A, C and D

are law reports and other are Gazetteers. What book is a new law report

with a red colour?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) A (b) B

Ans: (d)

92. Following are the characteristics of an area in India:

1. Hot and humid climate.

2. Annual rainfall 200 cm.

3. Hill slopes up to an altitude of 1100 metres.

4. Annual range of temperature 15° C to 30° C.

Which one among the following crops are you most likely to find in the area

described above?

(a) Mustard (b) Cotton

Ans: (c)

93. Running at a speed of 60 km per hour, a train passed through a 1.5 km

long tunnel in two

minutes. What is the length of the train?

(a) 250 m (b) 500 m

Ans: (b)

94. India – based Neutrino Observatory is included by the Planning

Commission as a mega

science project under the 11th Five Year Plan. In this context, consider the

following

statements:

1. Neutrinos are chargeless elementary particles that travel close to the speed of

light.

2. Neutrinos are created in nuclear reactions of beta decay.

3. Neutrinos have a negligible, but non zero mass.

4. Trillions of Neutrinos pass through human body every second.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only

Ans: (d)

95. The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India

Act 1935 have been

incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as :

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) Conduct of business of the Government of India.

Ans: (b)

96. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles produce one of the following as “exhaust”.

(a) NH3 (b) CH4

Ans: (c)

97. Recently, LASIK (Laser Assisted In Situ Keratomileusis) procedure is

being made popular

for vision correction. Which one of the following statements in this context

is not correct?

(a) LASIK procedure is used to correct refractive errors of the eye.

(b) It is a procedure that permanently changes the shapes of the cornea.

(d) It is a procedure that can be done on the person of any age.

Ans: (d)

98. Consider the following:

1. Oxides of Hydrogen. 2. Oxides of Nitrogen.

3. Oxides of Sulphus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

Ans: (c)

99. Six persons M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting in two rows, three in each. Q

is not at the end of

any row. P is second to the left of R. O is the neighbour of Q and is sitting

diagonally

opposite to P. N is the neighbour of R. On the basis of above information,

who is facing N?

(a) R (b) Q

Ans: (b)

100. A person X has four notes of Rupee 1, 2 , 5 and 10 denomination. The

number of different

sums of money she can form from them is

(a) 16 (b) 15

Ans: (b)

101. Consider the following statements:

1. Brazil. 2. Mexico.

3. South Africa.

According to UNCTAD, which of the above is / are categorized as “Emerging

Economies”?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only

Ans: (d)

102. Which one of the following is not related to United Nations?

(a) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency.

(b) International Finance Corporation.

(d) Bank for International Settlements.

Ans: d

103. In the context of Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

Term Most appropriate description

1. Melt down — Fall in stock prices

2. Recession — Fall in growth rate

3. Slow down — Fall in GDP

Which of the pairs given above is / are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans: (a)

104. With reference to BRIC countries, consider the following statements:

1. At present, China’s GDP is more than the combined GDP of all the three other

countries.

2. China’s population is more than the combined population of any two other

countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (c)

105. Which of the following is / are treated as artificial currency?

(a) ADR (b) GDR

Ans: (c)

106. Stiglitz Commission established by the President of the United Nations

General Assembly

was in the international news. The commission was supposed to deal with

(a) The challenges posed by the impending global climate change and prepare a

road map.

(b) The workings of the global financial systems and to explore ways and means

to secure a

more sustainable global order.

terrorism.

(d) Expansion of the United Nations Security Council in the present global

scenario.

Ans: (b)

107. With reference to the mineral sources of India, consider the following

pairs:

Mineral 90% National Sources in

1. Copper — Jharkhand

2. Nickel — Orissa

3. Tungsten — Kerala

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (b)

108. As regards the use of international food safety standards as reference

point for the

dispute settlements, which one of the following does WTO collaborate

with?

(a) Codex Alimentarius Commission.

(b) International Federation of Standards Users.

(d) World Standards Cooperation.

Ans: (a)

109. An objective of the National Food Security Mission is to increase the

production of

certain crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement in a

sustainable manner

in the identified districts of the country. What are those crops?

(a) Rice and Wheat only.

(b) Rice, wheat and pulses only.

(d) Rice, wheat, pulses, oil seeds and vegetables.

Ans: (b)

110. In India, the interest rate on savings account in all the nationalized

commercial banks is

fixed by

(a) Union Ministry of Finance (b) Union Finance Commission

Ans: (d)

111. With reference to the Simon Commission’s recommendations, which

one of the following

statements is correct?

(a) It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in

the province.

(b) It proposed the setting up of inter – provincial council under the Home

Department.

(d) It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for

increased pay

and allowances for British recruits and compared to Indian recruits.

Ans: (a)

112. Four resolutions were passed at the famous Calcutta session of Indian

National Congress

in 1906. The question of either retention OR of rejection of these four

resolutions became the

cause of a split in Congress at the next Congress session held in Surat in

1907. Which one of

the following was not one of those resolutions?

(a) Annulment of partition of Bengal (b) Boycott

Ans: (a)

113. Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third

number Z. By what

percentage is the number Y less than the number X?

(a) 8% (b) 9%

Ans: (c)

114. After Quit India Movement, C. Rajagopalachari issued a pamphlet

entitled “The Way Out”.

Which one of the following was a proposal in this pamphlet?

(a) The establishment of a “War Advisory Council” composed of representatives

of British India

and the Indian States.

(b) Reconstitution of the Central Executive Council in such a way that all its

members, except

the Governor General and the Commander – in – Chief should be Indian leaders.

end of 1945 and

the Constitution making body to be convened as soon as possible.

(d) A solution for the constitutional deadlock.

Ans: (d)

115. There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta

period in ancient

India. One of these is paintings of Ajanta Caves. Where is the other

surviving example of

Gupta paintings?

(a) Bagh Caves (b) Ellora Caves

Ans: (a)

116. The United Nations Framework Conventions on Climate Change

(UNFCCC) is an

international treaty drawn at :

(a) United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm, 1972.

(b) UN conference on Environment and Development, Rio de Janeiro, 1992.

(d) UN Climate Change Conference Copenhagen, 2009.

Ans: (b)

117. Which bacterial strain, developed from natural isolates by genetic

manipulations, can be

used for treating oil spills?

(a) Agrobacterium (b) Clostridium

Ans: (d)

118. Which features of some species of blue – green algae helps promote

them as bio –

fertilizers?

(a) They convert atmospheric methane into ammonia which the crop plants can

absorb readily.

(b) They induce the crop plants to produce the enzymes which help convert

atmospheric

nitrogen to nitrates.

the crop plants

can absorb readily.

(d) They induce the roots of the crop plants to absorb the soil nitrates in larger

quantities.

Ans: (c)

119. India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and has declared many

areas as Ramsar Sites.

Which of the following statements best describes as to how we should

maintain these

sites in the context of this Convention?

(a) Keep all the sites completely inaccessible to man so that they will not be

exploited.

(b) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and permit tourism and

recreation only.

exploitation,

with specific criteria and specific period for each site, and then allow sustainable

use of

them by future generations.

(d) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and allow their

simultaneous.

Sustainable use.

Ans: (c)

120. Other than Jatropha curcas, why is Pongamia pinnata also considered

a good option for

the production of bio – diesel in India?

1. Pongamia Pinnata grows naturally in most of the arid regions of India.

2. The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich in lipid content of which nearly half is

oleic acid.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (c)

121. A geographical area with an altitude of 400 metres has following

characteristics:

Month J F M A M J J A S O N D

Average maximum

temp. C

31 31 31 31 30 30 29 28 29 29 30 31

Average minimum

temp. C

21 21 21 21 21 21 20 20 20 20 20 20

Rainfall

(mm.)

51 85 188 158 139 121 134 168 185 221 198 86

If this geographic area were to have a natural forest, which one of the following

would it most

likely be?

(a) Moist temperate coniferous forest (b) Montane subtropical forest

Ans: (b)

122. If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted

and put in a

microwave oven, the potato heats up but the paper plate does not. This is

because :

(a) Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of

cellulose.

(b) Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves.

(d) Potato is a fresh organic material whereas paper is a dead organic material.

Ans: (b)

123. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:

1. Fundamental Rights.

2. Fundamental Duties.

3. Directive Principles of State Policy.

Which of the above provision of the Constitution of India is / are fulfilled by the

National Social

Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?

(a) 1 only (b) 3 only

Ans: (b)

124. A new type of El Nino called El Nino Modoki appeared in the news, In

this context,

consider the following statements:

1. Normal El Nino forms in the Central Pacific ocean whereas El Nino Modoki

forms in

Eastern Pacific ocean.

2. Normal El Nino results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic ocean but El

Nino Modoki

results in a greater number of hurricanes with greater frequency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (b)

125. Mon 863 is a variety of maize. It was in the news for the following

reason:

(a) It is a genetically modified dwarf variety which is resistant to drought.

(b) It is a genetically modified variety which is past resistant.

regular maize

crop.

(d) It is a genetically modified variety used exclusively for bio – fuel production.

Ans: (b)

126. A cuboid has six sides of different colours. The red side is opposite to

black. The blue

side is adjacent to white. The brown side is adjacent to blue. The red side is

face down. Which

one of the following would be the opposite to brown?

(a) Red (b) Black

Ans: (c)

127. Consider the following statements:

The satellite Oceansat – 2 launched by India helps in

1. estimating the water vapour content in the atmosphere.

2. predicting the onset of monsoons.

3. monitoring the pollution of coastal waters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (d)

128. Genetically modified “golden rice” has been engineered to meet

human nutritional

requirements. Which one of the following statements best qualifies golden

rice?

(a) The grains have been fortified with genes to provide three times higher grain

yield per acre

than other high yielding varieties.

(b) Its grains contain pro – vitamin A which upon ingestion is converted to vitamin

A in the

human body.

(d) Its modified genes cause the fortifications of its grains with vitamin D.

Ans: (b)

129. In a tournament 14 teams play league matches. If each team plays

against every other

team once only then how many matches are played?

(a) 105 (b) 91

Ans: ( b)

130. Consider the following statements:

The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on

matters of law or

fact.

1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).

2. if he seeks such an advice.

3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: ( b)

131. Chlorination is a process used for water purification. The disinfecting

action of chlorine is

mainly due to

(a) The formation of hydrochloric acid when chlorine is added to water.

(b) The formation of hypochlorous acid when chlorine is added to water.

(d) The formation of hydrogen when chlorine is added to water.

Ans: (c)

132. With reference to the Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is

correct?

(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre – litigation stage

and not those

matters pending before any court.

(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature.

not any

other person.

(d) None of the statements given above is correct.

Ans: (d)

133. Consider the following:

1. Bluetooth device 2. Cordless phone

3. Microwave oven 4. Wi – Fi device

Which of the above can operate between 2.4 and 2.5 GHz range of radio

frequency band?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only

Ans: (d)

134. Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some

difference

between them regarding their cultivation. In this context, consider the

following statements:

1. Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea

can be

cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas.

2. Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (c)

135. In the context of the affairs of which of the following is the phrase

“Special Safeguard

Mechanisms” mentioned in the news frequently?

(a) United Nations Environment Programme (b) World Trade Organization

Ans: (b)

136. Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by

commercial banks for

providing credit to the government?

(a) Cash Credit Ratio (b) Debt Service Obligation

Ans: (c)

137. In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the

Geographical Indications of

Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999. The difference / differences

between a “Trade

Mark” and a Geographical Indication is / are :

1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company’s right whereas a Geographical

Indications is a

community’s right.

2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication can not be

licensed.

3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the

Geographical

Indications is assigned to the agricultural goods / products and handicrafts only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans: (b)

138. The SEZ Act, 2005, which came into effect in February 2006 has certain

objectives. In this

Context, consider the following:

1. Development of infrastructure facilities.

2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources.

3. Promotion of exports of services only.

Which of the above are the objectives of this Act?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

Ans: (a)

139. Which one of the following statements is an appropriate description of

deflation?

(a) It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency against other currencies.

(b) It is a persistent recession in both the financial and real sectors of economy.

(d) It is a fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time.

Ans: (c)

140. Consider the following statements:

1. Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical regions.

2. India has four bio-diversity hotspots i.e. Eastern Himalayas, Western

Himalayas, Western

Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans: (d)

141. Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine

has prompted

attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult

an effective

malaria vaccine?

(a) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium.

(b) Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection.

(d) Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host.

Ans: (a)

142. Consider the following statements:

1. The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation.

2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few specific species of flora

and fauna.

3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference is permitted.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans: (c)

143. A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is sprayed on a food

crop. The food chain

is: Food crop – Rat – Snake – Hawk. In this food chain, the highest

concentration of the

pesticide would accumulate in which one of the following?

(a) Food crop (b) Rat

Ans: (d)

144. With reference to the soil conservation, consider the following

practices:

1. Crop relation 2. Sand fences.

3. Terracing 4. Wind breaks

Which of the above are considered appropriate methods for soil conservation in

India?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only

Ans: (c)

145. With the reference of the Non Banking Financial Companies ( NBFCs )

in India ,

Consider the following statements:

1. They cannot engage in the acquisition of Securities issued by the government.

2. They can not accept demand deposit like Saving Account.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a). 1 only (b). 2 only

(c). Both 1 and 2 (d). Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b)

146. Which one of the following was not stipulated in the Fiscal

Responsibility and Budget

Management Act , 2003 ?

(a). Elimination of revenue deficit by the end of the Fiscal year 2007-2008.

(b). Non borrowing by the central government from Reserve Bank of India except

under certain

Circumstance.

(c). Elimination of Primary deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2008-2009.

(d). Fixing government Guarantees in any financial year as a percentage of GDP.

Ans: (c)

147. Two trains leave new Delhi at the same time. One travels north at 60

Kmph and the other

travels south at 40 kmph . After how many hours will the trains be 150 km

apart?

(a). 3/2 (b). 4/3

(c). 3/4 (d). 15/2

Ans: (a)

148. A question paper had ten questions. Each question could only be

answered as True (T) or

False (F). Each candidate answered all the questions. Yet, no two

candidates wrote the

answers in an identical sequence. How many different sequences of

answers are possible?

(a). 20 (b). 40

(c). 512 (d). 1024

Ans: (d)

149. In the parlance of financial investments, the term ‘bear’ denotes:

(a). An investor who feels that the price of a particular security is going to fall.

(b). An investor who expects the price of particular share to rise.

(c). A shareholders or a bondholder who has an interest in a company.

(d). Any lender whether by making a loan or buying a bond.

Ans: (a)

150. A great deal of Foreign Direct Investment ( FDI ) to India comes from

Mauritius than from many major and mature economics like UK and France.

Why?

(a). India has preference for certain countries as regards receiving FDI.

(b). India has doubled taxation avoidance agreement with Mauritius.

(c). Most citizens of Mauritius have ethnic identity with India and so they feel

secure to invest

India.

(d). Impending dangers of global climate change prompt Mauritius to make huge

investment in

India.

Ans: (b)

IAS Exam Papers-Prelim - General Studies 2010

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